• calcopiritus@lemmy.world
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    1 day ago

    There was no colonization.

    The issue with the malvinas/Falklands is that there are no “historically rightful owners”, since no one lived there when they were discovered by the British.

    But it’s also not as easy as “the British discovered, so it’s theirs”, because they just discovered and left. They didn’t leave no settlement.

    The islands have a complicated history, both sides have strong arguments in favor of themselves, there’s no clear cut “rightful owner”.

    • Echo Dot@feddit.uk
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      7 hours ago

      Well the islands are settled now and they’re settled by people who think they’re British so I can’t really see how you can functionally come to the conclusion that there is any mystery.

      Argentina’s claim to the islands seems to be their they are sort of close to Argentina, although far enough out to be an international waters and there was once a Spanish settlement there back before Argentina existed as a country. By the time Argentina became its own country the Spanish settlement was no longer in existence.

      So from most of human history the islands were uninhabited or only sporadically inhabited and we’re talking the level of driftwood huts here, no permanent structures. If anyone had any legitimate claim to the island it would be Spain they were the first to build proper buildings on the islands, at least they had a settlement there until they abandoned it, but then they quite happily sold the rights to the land to the British.

    • adj16@lemmy.world
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      1 day ago

      The British didn’t discover the islands - the French (and then the Spanish) did. But they won them after that, so your points are still good - just wanted to point this part out

      • Caves_of_steel@lemmy.world
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        7 hours ago

        The French discovered Thema in 1764 , the britisch claimed Thema in 1765, the spanisch came only in 1770 with a force oft about one and a half thousand nen forcing the british off of the Islands

      • ohulancutash@feddit.uk
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        21 hours ago

        To clarify, Britain didn’t “win” them. The previous occupants had abandoned it totally as it wasn’t worth much to them. When Britain arrived, it was desolate and abandoned with no prior claim. This was, by the way, some time before Argentina existed.

    • iegod@lemmy.zip
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      1 day ago

      I agree with this take. The claims are plausible from both sides but England obviously won the battle. The inhabitants being established are a result of the military positioning, so their votes will obviously be skewed. Not sure their votes are comparable to those of say native populations of other disputed territories (since there were none).

      So I can understand why the Argentines feel aggrieved.

      • ohulancutash@feddit.uk
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        21 hours ago

        The Argentine claim is implausible. The Falklands were British before Argentina was created. Their reasoning is that it had been used by the Spanish, and so had now-Argentina, therefore dibs.

        • Knock_Knock_Lemmy_In@lemmy.world
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          21 hours ago

          Argentina gained independence from Spain on 25 May 1810

          In 1840, the Falklands became a Crown colony and Scottish settlers subsequently established an official pastoral community.

            • Knock_Knock_Lemmy_In@lemmy.world
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              3 hours ago

              British and Spanish.

              The British and Spanish settlements coexisted in the archipelago until 1774

              Now, is independence from Spain also independence from all it’s territories? I would argue yes.

            • Caves_of_steel@lemmy.world
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              7 hours ago

              Actually no - they were driven off by the spanisch in 1770 but never gave up their claim - however Ehen the british resettled the Islands in 1830 they were in fact abandonded

              • Echo Dot@feddit.uk
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                7 hours ago

                Right but the claim predates Argentina’s existence.

                The only way Argentina has legitimate claim to the island would be if Spain still maintained the claim to the island at the time Argentina became independent and even then they would have to have to cead the Falkland Islands to Argentina. Which of course never happened.

    • deft@lemmy.wtf
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      1 day ago

      Hm that’s tough. I always like to think boundaries set by countries are bullshit anyway, but it is located closer to Argentina. Another comment says they both want it because the island comes with vast amount of fishing so economic reasons. And the UK probably put money forth to develop some sort of living situation on there.

      • Echo Dot@feddit.uk
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        7 hours ago

        Proximity matters but only up to a point. The Islands aren’t that close to Argentina, I can’t remember what the exact limit is but under international law islands along to the country whose coastline is closest to them up to a distance of 10 nautical miles as long as there is no claim already in place. Of course that’s an international treaty which historically didn’t necessarily count, which is why you’ve got things like American Samoa and Hawaii.

      • dustyData@lemmy.world
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        1 day ago

        The UK is the only one’s who have ever invested on infrastructure. And it is all mostly to support the fishing industry. This is about money for the UK. The people who live there are descendants from people of all sort of places, because they were fishermen for a British fishing company. No wonder when asked, they prefer to be considered British. All Argentina has ever done on the island is bombing them.